HELP ME ASAP FOR BRANETEST I MEAN IT >_

Answer:

the mle of P=0.833

Step-by-step explanation:

X=incorrect answer

And probability of success to be denoted as P

Here X posses a binomial distribution along with 'r' and 'p'parameter

CHECK THE ATTACHMENT BELOW FOR DETAILED EXPLATION

Answer:

The difference is 11 units

Step-by-step explanation:

When we talk of the abscissa, we are referring to the x-axis.

So what this question is asking us is the difference between the values of the x-axis

At point A, the value is 4 while at point B, the value here is -7

So the difference between this two would be 4-(-7) = 4 + 7 = 11 units

Answer:

When you add more to your sample space.

Imagine you have a 6-sided dice and you change it to a 10-sided dice. Your possibilities of getting any number (excluding 7, 8, 9, 10), just went from 16.67% to 10%.

Answer:

210

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 7 * 6 * 5 ways to finish. This is because we have 3 slots:

For 1st place, there are 7 people that could take that place, so we have 7

For 2nd place, there are 6 people, because one person already took 1st, so they cant be second as well.

For 3rd place, there are 5 people, because 2 people already took first and second place, and neither of them can be third then.

So we have:

7*6*5 = 210

Answer:

210 ways

Step-by-step explanation:

For 1 st place there are 7 different runners

Now there are only 6 options

For 2nd place there are 6 different runners

Now there are only 5 options

For 3rd place there are 5 different runners

7*6*5

Answer:

2 + an

Step-by-step explanation:

1 + 1 + na

2 + am

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

We can see that at 1 minute there is 40 beats, at 2 minutes there is 80 beats, at 3 minutes there is 120 beats, at 4 minutes there is 160 beats and at 5 minutes there is 200 beats. If we divide each of the beats by its corresponding minute we will get 40

40 beats at 1 minute → 40 ÷ 1 = 40

80 beats at 2 minutes → 80 ÷ 2 = 40

120 beats at 3 minutes → 120 ÷ 3 = 40

160 beats at 4 minutes → 160 ÷ 4 = 40

200 beats at 5 minutes → 200 ÷ 5 = 40

Answer:

C is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

6x^7+12x^6+3x^5

Answer:

Answer:

C is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

6x^7+12x^6+3x^5

Answer:

hope this helps! pls mark brainliest

Step-by-step explanation:

a = quadrant 1

b = quadrant 1

c = quadrant 3

d = quadrant 2

e = quadrant 4

f = quadrant 3

g = quadrant 2

h = quadrant 4

Answer:

a) 3

b) -4

c) -1/3

d) -2

e) -4/3

Step-by-step explanation:

a) 6w=2  ,   w=6/2    , ie. w= 3

b) 6+w=2   ,w=2-6   , ie. w= -4

c) 6w+2= 0,  6w=  0-2 , 6w= -2 , w= -2/6, ie. w= -1/3

d) 6w+2= -10, 6w= -10-2,  6w= -12, w= -12/6 , ie. w= -2

e) 6w+2= 12w+10, 6w-12w = 10-2 ( here we interchanged the digits to get the variables or you can say the terms having variables in this case 'w' to the same side. hereby changing the sign from '+' to '-')

so

6w-12w = 10-2 ,-6w=8, w= -8/6, ie. w= -4/3

You can check your answers by substituting with the answers in place of the variable and check if the equation is solved.

Tell me if this was helpful

Answer:

After 5 minutes, the submarine is at -40 × 5 = -200 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

In 1 minute, the submarine is 40 feet below sea level. This situation can be represented with -40 feet. Notice that we use a negative sign since the submarine is descending.

Answer:

It's at 200 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

You multiply 40 and 5 because the submarine goes 40 ft per minute and you have to find out the level after 5 minutes.

Therefore 40•5=200 ft

Hope this helps!

Answer:

There are 8 possible outfit choices

Step-by-step explanation:

you multiply 2 times 4 because there each shirt can pair to each pants once

Answer:

2 x 10^-2

Step-by-step explanation:

0.02 equals to 2/100

therefore 0.02= 2/102 (remember this is negative)

= 2x10^-2 (therefore -2)

The solution to the number 0.02 in scientific notation is 2 * 10⁻²

From the question, we have the following parameters that can be used in our computation:

Number = 0.02

Multiply the number by 1

So, we have

Number = 0.02 * 1

Express 1 as 100/100

So, we have the following representation

Number = 0.02 * 100/100

Next, we have

Number = 2 * 1/100

Express 1/100 as 10⁻²

So, we have

Number = 2 * 10⁻²

Hence, the solution is 2 * 10⁻²

Read more about scientific notation at

brainly.com/question/1767229

#SPJ6

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

4/2 =2

12/6 =2

20/10 =2

Answer:

[tex]50.27[/tex] [tex]cm[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\pi r^2h \times 1/3[/tex]

[tex]\pi \times 2^2 \times 12 \times 1/3[/tex]

[tex]\pi \times 4 \times 12 \times 1/3[/tex]

[tex]16\pi[/tex]

[tex]\approx 50.265482[/tex]

Answer:

16π cm^3  or 50.27 cm^3 to the nearest hundredth.

Step-by-step explanation:

V = 1/3 π r^2 h

= 1/3 π 2^2 12

= 16π cm^3.

Answer:

It's a square

Step-by-step explanation:

Because a square has all equal sides, and its an quadrilateral, and we know its square bc the other shapes dont really have that.

The square is also the name of the regular quadrilateral — one in which all sides are congruent and all angles are congruent.

Answer:

Expected Payoff ⇒ $ 1.50 ; Type in 1.50

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering that 1 out of the 100 tickets will have a probability of winning a 150 dollar prize, take a proportionality into account;

[tex]100 - Number of Tickets,\\1 - Number of Tickets You Can Enter,\\\\1 / 100 - Probability of Winning,\\$ 150 - Money Won,\\\\Proportionality - 1 / 100 = x / 150, where x - " Expected Payoff "\\\\1 / 100 = x / 150,\\100 * x = 150,\\\\Conclusion ; x = 1.5 dollars[/tex]

Thus, Solution ; Expected Payoff ⇒ $ 1.50

[tex]answer = 1751\\ selling \: price = 1700 \\ tax \: percent = 3 \: percent \\ tax \: amount = tax \: percent \: of \: \: sp \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 3 \: percent \: of \: 1700 \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 51 \\ \\ \: final \: cost = 1700 + 51 \\ \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 1751 \\ hope \: it \: helps \\ good \: luck \: on \: your \: assignment[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Selling price

[tex]1700[/tex]

Tax percent

[tex]3\%[/tex]

Tax amount

[tex]1700 \times \frac{3}{100} \\ = 51 [/tex]

Final cost

[tex]1700 + 51 \\ = 1751[/tex]

hope this helps

brainliest appreciated

good luck! have a nice day!

Answer:

SAS

Step-by-step explanation:

DB and BD are equal

The angles near D are equal

AD and DC are equal

Side Angle Side

Answer:

you cant answer it you have no choice to pick cuz you didnt put dem

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

metre squared (m²)

Step-by-step explanation:

metre×metre=metre squared (m²)

Answer:

One solution

Step-by-step explanation:

They have isolated y for you in both equations so you can plug either one into the other.

y = 3x - 1

2x + 7 = 3x - 1

isolate the x

7 = x - 1

x = 8

Go back to the original and plug 8 into x to get y.

y = 2 (8) + 7

y = 16 + 7

y = 23

This means at (8, 23) y = 2x+7 is equal to y = 3x-1. In other words they share a point at (8, 23). This is the only solution because for any other x and y they'd not be equal.

Answer:

" Expected Payoff " = $ 4.30

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the steps below;

[tex]Probability of Winning the 150 Dollar Prize - 1 / 100,\\Probability * Money Won = " Expected Payoff " For The 150 Dollar Prize,\\\\1 / 100 * 150,\\" Expected Payoff " - 1.5 Dollars,\\\\Probability of Winning the 130 Dollar Prize - 1 / 100,\\\\1 / 100 * 130,\\" Expected Payoff " - 1.3 Dollars,\\\\Probability of Winning the 110 Dollar Prize - 1 / 100,\\\\1 / 100 * 110,\\" Expected Payoff " - 1.1 Dollars,\\\\Probability of Winning the 40 Dollar Prize - 1 / 100,\\\\[/tex]

[tex]1 / 100 * 40,\\" Expected Payoff " - 0.4 Dollars,\\\\Conclusion ; " Expected Payoff " = 1.5 + 1.3 + 1.1 + 0.4 = 4.30 Dollars[/tex]

Solution ; " Expected Payoff " = $ 4.30

Make a table as shown in the diagram below. X represents the winnings, P(X) is the probability of getting such winnings. The third column X*P(X) represents the product of the first two columns. After you figure out every value in the third column, you add everything up to get the final answer.

Answer:

What is 20 percent (calculated percentage %) of number 40? Answer: 8.

Step-by-step explanation:

happy to help ya:)

Answer:

2.5 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question we can use the exponencial function:

P = Po * (1 + r)^t

Where P is the final value, Po is the inicial value, r is the rate and t is the time.

In this case, we have Po = 8, P = 7 and r = -5% = -0.05. So, we can solve for t:

7 = 8 * (0.95)^t

0.95^t = 0.875

log(0.95^t) = log(0.875)

t * log(0.95) = -0.1335

t * (-0.0513) = -0.1335

t = -0.1335 / (-0.0513) = 2.6023 hours

Rounding to the nearest half-hour, we have t = 2.5 hours

Answer:

2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

I had this question and got it right

Answer:

Option (D).

Step-by-step explanation:

In the figure attached,

An exponential function has been graphed with certain points marked on it.

To find the average rate of change for this function between the given interval we will use the formula,

Average rate of change = [tex]\frac{f(x_2)-f(x_1)}{y_2-y_1}[/tex]

where [tex]f(x_2)[/tex] = value of the function at x = 4

[tex]f(x_1)[/tex] = value of the function at x = 2

By substituting these values in the formula,

Average rate of change = [tex]\frac{16-4}{4-2}[/tex]

                                        = [tex]\frac{12}{2}[/tex]

                                        = 6

Therefore, Option D will be the answer.

Answer:

2.61

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the amount of space between the two points, subtract -2.61 from 0.

0 - (-2.61)       Distribute the negative

0 + 2.61          Add

2.61

Answer:

a) y = -5 b) y = -4 c) y = 4 d) y = 11

Step-by-step explanation:

a) (-2+2)²-5

b) (-1+2)²-5

c) (1+2)²-5

d) (2+2)²-5

Answer:

a₆ = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a common ratio r between consecutive terms in the sequence, that is

r = [tex]\frac{216}{-1296}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-1296}{7776}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{7776}{-46656}[/tex] = - [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]

This indicates the sequence is geometric.

To obtain any term in the sequence, multiply the previous term by r, thus

a₅ = 216 × - [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] = - 36

a₆ = - 36 × - [tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] = 6

Answer:

It's 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Got it right!

1 –46,656

2 7,776

3 –1,296

4 216

5 36

6 6

divided by 6 every time

Answer:

r = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for volume of a cone is [tex]\pi r^2*\frac{h}{3}[/tex]

h = 6

V = 50π

[tex]2\pi r^2=50\pi[/tex]

r = 5

Answer:

B: Jupiter

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps